Post by Denis GironPost by l***@hotmail.com"catholic" as in "catholic epistles" i.e. "general epistles".
"catholic" as in "universal"
a. universal: =3D all believers in all ages
b. universal: =3D all believers today, around the world
Regarding points (a) and (b) above, the RCC absolutely teaches that
its teachings are for all believers in all ages, including all
believers today, around the world. I am confident that you do not
actually think otherwise. So where is the alleged contradiction?
The contradiction lies in the RC writings which clearly state that
unless one is a member of the RC organization, one is outside of the
"universal church" and in danger of his very soul being lost. Don't
even try to dismiss this accounting because I have been reading their
stuff for too many years and talked to way too many priests, bishops
and debated at their seminaries to be told otherwise. RCism is NOT the
biblical paradigm of the Church. It is an inverted pyramid teetering
on a false presuppositional interpretation of Mt 16:18.
Hey, most of my wife's family is RC. Most of my friends are RC way
back to childhood days. I love them and take solace that a few of them
actually have come to know Christ in a meaningful way despite their
continued RC enslavement. Yes, I too cringe at using such strong
terms, but it is experientially true. They simply cannot free
themselves from the overbearing indoctrination that the RCO places in
people from earliest childhood memories, that to leave the RCO is to
place one's self outside of the will of God.
Post by Denis GironPost by l***@hotmail.comFor one, it denies all other Christian
denominations.
What is the other option? Recognize all other Christian denominations?
Well isn't that the whole underlying premise of the WCC? Wasn't the
hypocritic intent of both Vatican's?
That aside, the NT epistle account is one of allowing for non-
fundamental differences because people and cultures are different.
Though there is only One Way, there are many different body parts and
each has a different relation to the head. This is not only due to
our dignified differences as ordained by God's special creation of
each and everyone of His children, but also due to sin. There is only
one Vicar of the Church and He sits at the right hand of God. There
is no earthly high priest countering the Aaronic paradigm. The new
paradigm has but one High Priest who lives forever to intercede
forever. To establish yet another priesthood and then to roughly glue
"apostolic succession" to it is nothing less that sheer fallen
humanism. It is man operating out of the flesh, operating out of the
mentality of meritorious acceptance, out of the fallen inclination due
to participation in the fruit of good and evil.
Post by Denis GironIt seems plainly obvious to me that there is one truth. Either a
Church is teaching the truth, or it is not. Either you're part of the
Church built by Christ, or you are not. Why should any church
recognize "denominations" which teach contrary to its own doctrines?
Because it depends whether or not one is true to the fundamental
doctrines while being distinguished on non-foundational teachings.
For instance, a denomination might be in complete agreement with the
fundamentals listed by the Fundamentalist of the Bible School era, but
not be inagreement with eschatological doctrines. Is that a test of
fellowship? Hardly.
Post by Denis GironDo you recognize all denominations? Do you recognize the RCC, or deny
it? What about the Greek Orthodox church? What about the Mormons,
Jehovah's Witnesses, Seventh Day Adventists, Black Israelites and
members of the Creciendo en Gracia cult? What are the limits to
reognizing or denying other denominations.
But now you have entered into the arena of organizations which do not
adhere to the fundamentals. As stated earlier in this thread,
doctrine divides, and in some cases, rightly so. If you don't believe
in the Deity of Christ then right out of the gate you are in error.
If you do believe in the Deity of Christ and yet have a false,
unbiblical view of what was accomplished in the atoning work of
Christ, then again, you are called into question. Or what about those
who accept Christ as very God and even hold some aspect of the
biblical view of what was actually accomplished on the cross but
adhere to a works related, legalism? At best all we can say for such
is that there are "little children."
The limits are simple, sola fide, sola gratia, sola Christos all based
upon sola scriptura.
Post by Denis GironIn all honesty, I have no idea what you have in mind with such an
objection above. Romans 16:17 seems to make it clear that one is to be
wary of recognizing those who divide themselves from the Church or
teach contrary to the Church.
Because to be of the opinion (and that is all it is) that v. 18 is a
reference to the Church being established in the apostolic primacy of
Peter is ludicrous from an reasonable exegetical point of view.
Besides, when does one build dogma, especially foundational dogma, on
dubious texts? All one has to do is look at 1st & 2nd Peter and
analysis his evaluation of just who the Rock actually is, even as the
OT clearly taught, to realize that the RCO has its house built on
sand. Now these are not trivial matters. They are of a substantial
import because the whole RC organization is but a superstructure built
off of its opinion concerning this one verse.
Post by Denis GironIn fact, 1 John 2:18-19 seems to make it
clear that those who separate from the Church are antiChrists.
But you are presupposing that we have established a right definition
of just what or who the Church actually is.
Post by Denis GironDo you
think a body which considers itself the Church should ignore such
verses, and recognize those who separate from the Church, cause
divisions, and teach doctrines contrary to the Church?
And this is why the Reformers protested the RCO. There is no
"universalism" in RCism. It does not recognize the universal
character of the Body of Christ as does the NT teachings.
Post by Denis GironYour objection is perplexing, as it seems give the impression that you
think a Church is automatically false if it is intolerant of groups
which teach different doctrines. Galatians 1:8 comes to mind, so I
would ask that you please elaborate on what you had in mind above.
I think I've done enough of that in this reply already.
Post by Denis GironPost by l***@hotmail.comThe 39 articles of the Anglican Church came out of
the same reformational base as did the Westminster
Confession. =3DA0They correctly use the term "catholic".
Interesting. Could you be more specific? Just recently I started
reading about the notion of "brance theory" employed by certain High
Church Anglicans in the 19th century, but it is a subject I am not at
all familiar with, hence the reason I asked you to elaborate.
Also, don't some High Church Anglicans call themselves "Anglo-
Catholics"? How is the Church of England being Catholic not a
contradiction, while the Vatican being Catholic is?
To answer all of this would take a fair amount of time to educate you
in the historical flow of the Church of England. I believe have
already referenced "Anglicans Not Angles" a $60 book that is worth
every penny.
Post by Denis GironFinally, on this portion, note that I have not specifically said the
RCC is the Church. I'm open to the possibility that it is not, and
that rather one of the Orthodox Churches is. But then I look at the
Anglican communion today, with their openly gay bishops, their
openness to contradictory approaches to doctrine, and their ArchBishop
who writes books attempting to overturn ancient notions of heresy
(e.g. does Rowan Williams believe the heresy of Arius is still a
heresy today), et cetera. If I was comparing the RCC and/or Orthodoxy,
on the one hand, and the Anglican communion, on the other, I can't see
by what stretch of the imagination I would conclude that the latter is
the Church built by Christ (or even a part of it).
Nor am I defending all fundamentalist. That term has taken on bad
connotations which it doesn't deserve when one looks at the history of
it. I could never be an Anglican today apart from the likes of Ryle.
Post by Denis GironPost by l***@hotmail.comHard dates are hard to determine.
Fine, you don't have to give a hard date. You can give a general span
of years, decades or even centuries. Judging by what you wrote next...
Post by l***@hotmail.comThe Roman ecclesiastical unit was made the religion
of the state for a time before the pagan religions
won back their prominence, only to lose it again once
and for all.
=A0...I'm still wondering if you're thinking of the RCC starting some
time around the time of Constantine. Surely, if that is your position,
I imagine the Orthodox readers/contributors of this newsgroup would
raise an eyebrow at such. So, again, when is it that you believe the
RCC began? I'm not asking for a hard and fast date, but try to be
specific. I want to see what, exactly, it is that you're claiming.
When do I actually believe the RC system was established would be a
better question. That is believe was established in Babylon. Having
pursued that end for many, too many years, I don't foresee me ever
recanting. Four years in Egyptology, three in the Assyrian and
Babylonian mystery religions. Sometimes I view as a waste, others as
a fundamental reason for viewing life from the Divine perspective.
Post by Denis GironPost by l***@hotmail.comNow, later you as about "biblical Christianity." =3DA0The bible
teaches of only two accepted priesthoods as established
by God.
Romans 15:16 gives the impression that Paul was a sort of priest. Now,
he was a Benjaminite, not a Levite, so obviously he was not a Levite,
and thus was not part of the Aaronic priesthood you spoke of. But let
me ask you, is there a priesthood in existence in the post-
Resurrection of Christ? Your post seemed to imply the answer is no,
while this verse in Romans (so too Revelation 5:10) seems to give the
impression the answer is actually yes.
Hey, just let me ask you this one question -and it can then be applied
to a host of other objections - that question is this.... If what you
are supposing is true, do you not think that there would be a radical
establishment of it in the writings and the history of the NT? I ask
this also of those who maintain that Gal 6:16 teaches replacement
theology. These things would be so radical to the mind of the 1st
Century Jew who had been freed from the legal system and who held the
immutability of God's promises that to have it be otherwise would take
deliberate teaching from Christ and His representative apostles. But
we dont see that do we? NO doctrine is based upon one verse, let
alone an entire ecclesiastical system.
Post by Denis GironTherefore, I would ask that you elaborate on your understanding of the
priesthood. Originally I thought you believed there should be no
priesthood today, but you said the priesthood of Melchitsedeq is "the
only legitimate priesthood today," so could you be more clear?
I really don't have the time. But let me say this, may like to run to
1 P 2:9 but always without first taking into account of the
specificity of readership established in 1:1. This is true of James
as well. IF the Church, that is those believers who are called into
the Body of Christ to become the Bride of Christ, that believing
remnant from the time of Pentecost to the Rapture, actually are a
priesthood as the OT paradigm illustrates, then it is a heavenly
priesthood and not some earthly, worldly re-establishment of a novel
approach of application.
Post by Denis GironPost by l***@hotmail.comFirst off, please list and define the "traditions of the church" for
us all. =3DA0I await with bated breath.
I do not have an exhaustive list of the Traditions of the Church.
Indeed there isn't any. It's open ended. So you place a subjective
ideologue over the Divinely oriented Scriptures. Ya, that is the way
of man.
Post by Denis GironPost by l***@hotmail.comBiblical Christianity maintains that God has left
His Church but one and only one sure source
of authoritative safeguard against error-
the Scriptures, all 66 books.
This would seem to be a tradition of Loren Senders (and other
Protestants). Where in the Bible does it say the one and ONLY source
is the 66 book canon?
That it was the OT canon was accepted by Christ is enough for that
aspect of the debate. As for the NT, that it was the specific task
given to the Apostles to write down God's dictative revelation.
PLEASE understand the theological meaning of dictation. John ends the
canon in both a narrow and broad comprehending statement that nothing
more was to be added.
Post by Denis GironIn fact, where does your canon even list the
canon? It seems that from the very beginning, to even know what books
are part of the Bible, one has to go to some source outside the Bible,
hence the reason I wrote to Catherine that I find Bible-only
Christianity to be logically inconsistent.
The Scriptures are inspired. The recognition of the canon was
illuminated under the auspice of the providential care of an all
sovereign God. i.e. men discovered, had it revealed to them,
recognized by means of the Spirit the canonical books. There is also
the fact that we weren't given Corinthians 3 and possibly 4 along with
other writings of the apostles and their 1st C disciples such as Luke,
Jude and the author of Hebrews.
Post by Denis GironPost by l***@hotmail.comIt is a naive fallacy to think one can
bring these so called "traditions" along
side of the Scriptures
Actually, from 2 Thessalonians 2:15 I conclude that Scripture itself
is a type of Tradition,
Don't confuse definition. This sort of mind set is illustrated by
those who likewise confuse the narrow and broad definition of the Day
of the Lord or that when used "all" means precisely that without any
qualifiers. Naivette?
Post by Denis Gironand, aside from that, there is also an Oral
Tradition. I'm not talking about mere inauthentic traditions of men,
but rather authentic Traditions of the Church. Luke 8:10 gives me the
impression that true understanding was given to the Apostles, hence
the reason we should, rather than just winging it, humble ourselves
and admit the same thing the Ethiopian in Acts 8:31 confessed: we
cannot understand the Scriptures without the guidance of the
Apostles.
Christ did not just hand people the Bible; rather HE BUILT A CHURCH
(Matthew 16:18). This is what separates Catholics/Orthodox on the one
hand, from most Protestants today on the other: the former believes
the Church, and not the Bible alone, is the pillar and foundation of
truth,
rationalistic humanism devoid of the Spirit as the history of these
church quite easily illustrates. Yes, the same could be held of all
Christian assemblies but how many declare themselves to be the ONE
true church. I don't know any Protestant assembly or denomination who
ever so claimed such a title. "Servant of servants" and yet when he
eats, he eats on a diest (or however you spell it) or when dressed in
all his finery has to be lifted up. Ya, we got the pope-mobile now
but I remember him being carried on the backs of men. "Servant of
servants" such a lofty title but only a guise for ecclesiastical
power.
Post by Denis Giron, while most Protestants today seem to think it is the 66-book
canon alone. Where do you stand Loren? Do you accept the Church as the
pillar and foundation of truth? Or do you instead wish to replace the
church with the 66-book canon and hold that up as the pillar and
foundation of truth?
Do away which the over arching authority of Scripture and you are left
with what safe guard over error? Come on, be a bit of a realist.
Men, left to themselves, are not going to establish Absolutes. Only
God can accomplish that. What assurance does anyone have that a group
of men, and this first of all presumes that they are 1) actually
regenerate men and 2) they are under the leading of the HS and there
capable of manifesting absolute truth?
sorry, all I have time for....